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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 11:03 am |
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561st Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 125 In the effort to remove even a shadow of doubt as to the right answer to that question I offer Joe's Law: added comma: In the effort to remove even a shadow of doubt as to the right answer to that question, I offer Joe's Law:
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 11:31 am |
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562nd Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 125 Counterfeit power does not actually produce power. So The FED is actually consuming power, not producing it. With each lie, which is each unit of counterfeit money, and each purchase that they alone make when they make money for nothing, and then spend the money they made for nothing but lying: consumes. If they “loan” money, that is a purchase, as they purchase a borrower. That is called fraud. modified: Counterfeit power does not actually produce power, but consumes power. So The FED is actually consuming power, not producing it. With each lie -- which is each unit of counterfeit money -- and with each purchase that they alone make when they make money for nothing, and then when they spend the money they make for nothing but lying, that is consumption. When they “loan” money that is a purchase, as they actually purchase the borrower. That is called fraud. JOE, I want to scream. They are buying us with fake money. The horror.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 11:37 am |
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563rd Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 125 Productive Power Produced into oversupply reduces the price of power... added italics: Productive Power Produced into oversupply reduces the price of power...
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 11:39 am |
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564th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 126 When Productive Power is Produced into oversupply and then the price of power is reduced it is not a result of Counterfeiters Purchasing Borrowers Fraudulently. modified: When Productive Power is produced into oversupply and the price of power is reduced, it is not a result of Counterfeiters Purchasing Borrowers Fraudulently.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 12:17 pm |
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565th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 126 That means: So much wealth being produced by so many productive people that the limits of abundance of wealth is allowed to happen instead of limits placed on the production of productive power being enforced by criminals who profit by using the power they steal to eliminate all competition (monopoly fraud business). Modified: That means: So much wealth being produced by so many productive people that the limits of abundance of wealth is allowed to happen INSTEAD of limits being placed on the production of productive power and being enforced by criminals who profit by using the power they steal to eliminate all competition (monopoly fraud business).
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 12:20 pm |
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566th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 126 Productive Power Produced into oversupply reduces the price of Productive Power... Added Italics: Productive Power Produced into oversupply reduces the price of [l]Productive[/l] Power...
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 12:25 pm |
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567th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 126 That means: As more and more people are free to compete in the work that does effectively produce more wealth, more things of value, more actual value, more actual productive power, as more and more production is produced... The result of all that "economy" is a reduction in the price of all that "economy," as fewer people have nothing and more people have plenty. The stuff of value goes down in price, as a matter of fact, in reality. Added "then" and joined ellipse That means: As more and more people are free to compete in the work that does effectively produce more wealth, more things of value, more actual value, more actual productive power, as more and more production is produced…then the result of all that "economy" is a reduction in the price of all that "economy," as fewer people have nothing and more people have plenty. The stuff of value goes down in price, as a matter of fact, in reality.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 12:32 pm |
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568th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 126 That is called monetary appreciation (gaining power) or deflation (gaining power). Two words for the same thing. Modified: That is called monetary appreciation (gaining power) or deflation (gaining power) - two words for the same thing.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 12:38 pm |
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569th Post |
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bear Guest
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Joe, I think I remember that money should not be made scarce and that we could use rocks for money. Now I am reading this on page 127 and I am not understanding: If there is a finite unchanging amount of Legal Money then that same, steady, known, finite, and accurately accounted for supply of that exact amount of money, without increase or decrease in that finite supply of money, gains purchasing power as Productive Power increases to a condition of oversupply, and meanwhile the price of Productive Power decreases. Do you have time to help me understand?
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 04:19 pm |
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570th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 127 If there is a finite unchanging amount of Legal Money then that same, steady, known, finite, and accurately accounted for supply of that exact amount of money, without increase or decrease in that finite supply of money, gains purchasing power as Productive Power increases to a condition of oversupply, and meanwhile the price of Productive Power decreases. added comma before "then" and removed comma before "and" and added parenthesis for readability: If there is a finite unchanging amount of Legal Money, then that same, steady, known, finite and accurately accounted for supply of that exact amount of money (without increase or decrease in that finite supply of money) gains purchasing power as Productive Power increases to a condition of oversupply, and meanwhile the price of Productive Power decreases.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 04:25 pm |
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571st Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 127 More power (more wealth) = lower prices of power (wealth) and more things to buy with the same money means less money required to get one of the many things. Lower prices of wealth and the same amount of money to buy that wealth, and each dollar can then buy more wealth, since the price of wealth goes down. Same amount of total money in use, more stuff to buy = more purchasing power per unit of money: Where 1 dollar could only buy 1 thing; now there are 2 things at lower prices, so 1 dollar now buys 2 things. Modified: More power (more wealth) = lower prices of power (wealth). In other words: more things to buy with the same money means less money required to get one of the many things. In other words: lower prices of wealth with the same amount of money to buy that wealth means that each dollar can buy more wealth, since the price of wealth goes down. In other words: the same amount of total money in use and more stuff to buy means more purchasing power per unit of money. In other words: where one dollar could only buy one thing; now there are two things available at lower prices, so one dollar can now buy two things.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 04:57 pm |
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572nd Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 127 If there is no legal money then there are no “taxes” (extortion payments) required to enforce that one money, and no demand to pay “taxes,” and therefore there is no connection between LAW and MONEY, but the Economic Law (without the political part) still applies. Joe, can you make sure I did not change the meaning of your intent while I was working toward readability for bear people. If there is no legal money, then there are no “taxes” (extortion payments) required to enforce that one money, so then there is no demand to pay “taxes.” Therefore, there is no more connection between LAW and MONEY; however, Economic Law (without political interference) still naturally applies.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:04 pm |
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573rd Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 127 Joe, this sentence follows on the heals of the post above. I am thinking it would be interesting to elaborate more with an additional sentence about the insertion of political law into economic law, which leads me to ask: Can political law ever be inserted into economics in a way which is productive? Or does political law always need to be detached from economics? Is there such a thing as political law where crime is not made legal? Here is the sentence that I am asking for elaboration on. Or is that outside the scope of this section of the book? Economic Law remains true with or without Political LAW
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:08 pm |
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574th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 128 People either believe in the lie, are led by such falsehoods, or they know better. Removed comma and added "and": People either believe in the lie and are led by such falsehoods, or they know better.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:14 pm |
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575th Post |
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Joe Kelley Administrator
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bear, The concept here is possibly understandable from a mathematical viewpoint involving a constant in place of a variable. The idea is to see how other variables work when the Legal Money Unit is held constant, and this is to me the most telling part of Joe's Law, because the Fraud of Legal Money works because the victims assume (wrongly) that the source of the Power of Legal Money are honest people and therefore those honest people actually try to keep the Legal Unit Value of Money Constant. Look at it this way: Productive power produced into oversupply does, in fact, reduce the price that anyone, anywhere, can charge for productive power. Take any form of productive power and realize how that works. I like electricity as the example that works the best, but you can pick anything. You can pick knowledge as the form of productive power produced to a point where knowledge is everywhere in abundance. Everyone knows everything and therefore no one can get anyone else to pay for knowledge since knowledge is everywhere. I like electricity because it is easier to measure in fact. One kilowatt/hour of electricity is exactly one kilowatt/hour of electricity always. One unit of knowledge is always one unit of knowledge too, I suppose, but see if you can get out a hand held measuring device and measure up one Unit of Knowledge. You may find one Unit of Knowledge and I may get out my measuring device and find that your measuring device does not measure the same Unit of Knowledge in the same way as mine. It would be difficult to find out which measuring device was more accurate, yours, or mine. So instead of knowledge being abundant the idea is to see what happens to the price of electricity if electricity is produced into abundance, so abundant is the supply of electricity made that it is as abundant as the current supply of lies from politicians, or even better, the current supply of oxygen is as abundant as the current supply of electricity on Earth: in our hypothetical example of POWER abundance (independence). I know this is a long way around the answer to the question, but I think it is a competitive way to answer the question. So now, there are relatively inexpensive units of electricity produced everywhere, you can get a unit of electricity as easy as breathing in. You can breath in now. How much does it cost to breath in right now? Who sends you a bill for each breath you take? No one. Not yet anyway. So electricity reaches that level of abundance, to answer the question, this is how the question is answered, you now consume electricity at the same rate of monetary cost to you as you currently pay for each breath, which is nothing. Electricity is so abundant now, in this answer to your question, that you do not have to pay another penny, or nickle, or dime, or quarter, or Federal Reserve Note for any more electricity that you use, just like you now pay for each breath you take. Power produced into oversupply reduces the price of power. That part is now abundantly clear, as if knowledge was abundant? Costless knowledge? How much do I charge you for this knowledge? Nothing. Same deal. It does not cost anything? Wrong. The idea is to understand the UNIT of measure. Which unit of measure? Power produced into oversupply reduces the price of power WHILE purchasing power increases. How much is one Unit of Purchasing Power? Is the measure of one Unit of Purchasing Power constant? No, the unit is currently not constant, so the Joe's Law perspective has to MAKE that unit constant so as to MAKE sense of how political economy actually works. If the Legal Criminals at The Federal Reserve are MAKING the Legal Unit of Purchasing Power decrease rapidly (what else do they do?), then the rate of production has to increase rapidly just to keep up with the rate at which the Legal Criminals are reducing the Purchasing Power of the Legal Unit of Monopoly Money. So, to make things very much simpler, the idea is to imagine that there are no Legal Criminals working feverishly to reduce the Purchasing Power of a Unit of Legal Money, and therefore the Purchasing Power of a single Unit of Legal Money is constant, always the same thing, as if One Unit of Legal Money is equal to One Kilowatt/hour of Electricity. Back to the scenario of abundant Electricity, where no one pays anyone for any more electricity, which is the same cost per person for each breath of air currently (with some exceptions such as people buying oxygen because some people suffer bad health) so what then happens to that constant unit of value known as Legal Monopoly Money or Purchasing Power when no one is paying any more Legal Money for Electricity? The answer must be obvious, or you fail to understand how Political Economy works. The answer is such that the Constant Unit of Legal Money buys more as Electricity becomes abundant and as the price of electricity reaches zero. Purchasing Power (of one constant unit of Legal Money) increases. Like this: Electricity (power) produced into oversupply reduces the price of electricity (power) while the same "dollar" buys more. The same dollar buys more. That does not mean that a different dollar buys more, and therefore there is your answer, if I understood the question. The dollar has to be assumed to be of a constant supply, or quantity, which is proportional to the value of that unit of Purchasing Power. The process in view is called POWER. Not Energy. Not Force. Not Mass. Not Motion. Not Velocity. The concept in view is POWER. Which POWER? Purchasing Power. Why does Purchasing Power increase when Electricity (Power) is produced into oversupply? Because the price of electricity reaches zero, just like the price of oxygen (before the Legal Criminals destroy that too), just like the price of the air we breath is currently no cost paid by us to anyone (except when the Legal Criminals decide to tax each breath), just like now where air is priceless, electricity can become priceless too, and because everything that is produced is made less costly when productive power, or electricity, is employed to make things, because POWER reduces the cost of production. Which power? We can go right back to the power of knowledge. Make the power of knowledge abundant and is it likely that people will work to make productive power abundant, or will many very knowledgeable people be sending all they produced to criminals who then make everyone suffer?
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:20 pm |
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576th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 128 Joe, I don't understand the "with or without" part of added to Joe's Law. In the way I am thinking extortion inverts Joe's Law resulting in entropy instead of ectropy when economic law is allowed its natural course without interference of fraud. Productive Power Produced into oversupply reduces the price of Productive Power WHILE Purchasing Power INCREASES with, or without anyone, anywhere, enforcing any extortion (“tax”) payments of any kind with any money of any kind. Can you help me understand?
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:22 pm |
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577th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 128 If prices go down the same amount of money buys more, and that is also a fact, but there is one more thing to note. Added comma and colon: If prices go down, the same amount of money buys more, and that is also a fact, but there is one more thing to note:
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:29 pm |
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578th Post |
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Joe Kelley Administrator
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bear, 7/25/13 Page 128 Joe, I don't understand the "with or without" part of added to Joe's Law. In the way I am thinking extortion inverts Joe's Law resulting in entropy instead of ectropy when economic law is allowed its natural course without interference of fraud. Productive Power Produced into oversupply reduces the price of Productive Power WHILE Purchasing Power INCREASES with, or without anyone, anywhere, enforcing any extortion (“tax”) payments of any kind with any money of any kind. Can you help me understand? I may be able to help. Productive power can be invested toward making more productive power, but if that does happen, the Legal Criminals will no longer have destructive power. Does that sound right?
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:31 pm |
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579th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 128 Only the frauds and their victims choose to believe in life without cost, sometimes known as a "something for nothing" scheme, or Pyramid Scheme. Modified: Only the frauds and their victims choose to believe in life without cost, sometimes known as a "something for nothing" or “Pyramid” Scheme.
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| Posted: Thu Jul 25th, 2013 05:33 pm |
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580th Post |
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bear Guest
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7/25/13 Page 128 Buying into such things as "something for nothing," or Pyramid, or Ponzi, schemes may be a very good investment for the Legal Criminals because the Legal Criminals reap all the rewards while the victims pay all the costs. Removed removed 1st "or" and comma after Ponzi: Buying into such things as "something for nothing," Pyramid, or Ponzi schemes may be a very good investment for the Legal Criminals because the Legal Criminals reap all the rewards while the victims pay all the costs.
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